[Jan 24, 2022] Prepare For The CRISC Question Papers In Advance [Q427-Q451]

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[Jan 24, 2022] Prepare For The CRISC Question Papers In Advance

CRISC PDF Dumps Real 2022 Recently Updated Questions


Information Technology Risk Assessment: 28%

  • Revise a risk register in alignment with the result from a risk assessment project.
  • Ensure that the ownership of risk is assigned at the relevant level to put accountability;
  • Review risk situations based on predetermined organizational criteria to determine the possibility and effect of identified risks;
  • Establish the present state of on-going controls and review their efficiency for the mitigation of IT risk;

How to book the CRISC Exam

These are following steps for registering the CRISC exam. Step 1: Pass the CISA examination within the last five years Step 1: Pass the CRISC examination within the last five years Step 2: Candidate has a minimum of five years in CRISC job practice area Step3: Apply for CRISC certification with $50 USD processing fee

For more detail visit this link Apply for certification


The benefit in Obtaining the CRISC Exam Certification

  • CRISC can likewise offer a profession jump as an advancement by separating candidates from different people who are not CRISC confirmed
  • CRISC supports candidate knowledge and experience in the assigned region and shows their capacity for responding to any challenge.
  • Allows candidate capability in IS audit, control and security profession.
  • Candidates with this certification for the best part they earn 47.54% higher pay.
  • A internationally accepted as the characteristic of excellence for the IS audit professional.

 

NEW QUESTION 427
Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

  • A. Sustained financial loss
  • B. Average time to recovery
  • C. Duration of service outage
  • D. Cost of remediation efforts

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 428
What are the key control activities to be done to ensure business alignment?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

  • A. Conduct IT continuity tests on a regular basis or when there are major changes in the IT infrastructure
  • B. Establish an independent test task force that keeps track of all events
  • C. Define the business requirements for the management of data by IT
  • D. Explanation:
    Business alignment require following control activities:
    Defining the business requirements for the management of data by IT.
    Periodically identifying critical data that affect business operations, in alignment with the risk
    management model and IT service as well as the business continuity plan.
  • E. Periodically identify critical data that affect business operations
  • F. is incorrect. Conducting IT continuity tests on a regular basis or when there are major
    changes in the IT infrastructure is done for testing IT continuity plan. It does not ensure alignment
    with business.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
is incorrect. This is not valid answer.
TestsQuizNotesArticlesItemsReportsHelpBuy

 

NEW QUESTION 429
Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST:

  • A. reallocate risk response resources
  • B. conduct a risk analysis
  • C. update the risk register
  • D. review the key risk indicators

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 430
Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

  • A. Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.
  • B. Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.
  • C. Management has not begun the implementation.
  • D. Management has not determined a final implementation date.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 431
Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

  • A. A list of identified generic risk scenarios
  • B. Closed management action plans from the previous audit
  • C. Annual risk assessment results
  • D. An updated vulnerability management report

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 432
You are the project manager of the KJH Project and are working with your project team to plan the risk responses. Consider that your project has a budget of $500,000 and is expected to last six months. Within the KJH Project you have identified a risk event that has a probability of .70 and has a cost impact of $350,000.
When it comes to creating a risk response for this event what is the risk exposure of the event that must be considered for the cost of the risk response?

  • A. The risk exposure of the event is $500,000.
  • B. The risk exposure of the event is $245,000.
  • C. The risk exposure of the event is $850,000.
  • D. The risk exposure of the event is $350,000.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
The risk exposure for this event is found by multiplying the risk impact by the risk probability.
Risk Exposure is a straightforward estimate that gives a numeric value to a risk, enabling different risks to be compared.
Risk Exposure of any given risk = Probability of risk occurring x impact of risk event
= 0.70 * 350,000
= 245,000
Incorrect Answers:
A: $350,000 is the impact of the risk event.
B: $500,000 is the project's budget.
C: $850,000 is the project's budget and the risk's impact.

 

NEW QUESTION 433
Which of the following are parts of SWOT Analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose four.)

  • A. Strengths
  • B. Opportunities
  • C. Tools
  • D. Threats
  • E. Weaknesses

Answer: A,B,D,E

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SWOT analysis is a strategic planning method used to evaluate the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats involved in a project or in a business venture. It involves specifying the objective of the business venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors that are favorable and unfavorable to achieving that objective. The technique is credited to Albert Humphrey, who led a research project at Stanford University in the 1960s and 1970s using data from Fortune 500 companies.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Tools are not the parts of SWOT analysis.

 

NEW QUESTION 434
You are the project manager of GHT project. Your project utilizes a machine for production of goods. This machine has the specification that if its temperature would rise above 450 degree Fahrenheit then it may result in burning of windings. So, there is an alarm which blows when machine's temperature reaches 430 degree Fahrenheit and the machine is shut off for 1 hour. What role does alarm contribute here?

  • A. Of risk trigger
  • B. Of risk identification
  • C. Of risk indicator
  • D. Of risk response

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here in this scenario alarm indicates the potential risk that the rising temperature of machine can cause, hence it is enacting as a risk indicator.
Risk indicators are metrics used to indicate risk thresholds, i.e., it gives indication when a risk level is approaching a high or unacceptable level of risk. The main objective of a risk indicator is to ensure tracking and reporting mechanisms that alert staff about the potential risks.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The first thing we must do in risk management is to identify the areas of the project where the risks can occur. This is termed as risk identification. Listing all the possible risks is proved to be very productive for the enterprise as we can cure them before it can occur. In risk identification both threats and opportunities are considered, as both carry some level of risk with them.
C: The temperature 430 degrees in scenario is the risk trigger. A risk trigger is a warning sign or condition that a risk event is about to happen. As in this scenario the 430-degree temperature is the indication of upcoming risks, hence 430 degree temperature is a risk trigger.
D: Risk response is the action taken to reduce the risk event occurrence. Hence here risk response is shutting off of machine.

 

NEW QUESTION 435
Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

  • A. Data owner
  • B. Risk owner
  • C. Risk manager
  • D. Business manager

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 436
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

  • A. Logs are encrypted during transmission from the system to analysis tools.
  • B. Logs are retained for a longer duration than the data retention policy requires.
  • C. Logs are collected from a small number of systems.
  • D. Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 437
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

  • A. recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
  • B. inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.
  • C. inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
  • D. inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 438
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

  • A. Provide awareness in early detection of risk.
  • B. Assign ownership of the risk response plan.
  • C. Perform periodic audits on identified risk areas.
  • D. Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 439
You are the risk official of your enterprise. Your enterprise takes important decisions without considering risk credential information and is also unaware of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk management. In which of the following risk management capability maturity levels does your enterprise exists?

  • A. Level 1
  • B. Level 0
  • C. Level 5
  • D. Level 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
0 nonexistent: An enterprise's risk management capability maturity level is 0 when:
The enterprise does not recognize the need to consider the risk management or the business impact

from IT risk.
Decisions involving risk lack credible information.

Awareness of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk

management (ERM) do not exists.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These all are much higher levels of the risk management capability maturity model and in all these enterprise do take decisions considering the risk credential information. Moreover, in these levels enterprise is aware of external requirements for risk management and integrate with ERM.

 

NEW QUESTION 440
The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

  • A. a function of the likelihood and impact
  • B. the magnitude of an impact
  • C. a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.
  • D. the likelihood of a given threat

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 441
Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

  • A. Internal auditor
  • B. Data custodian
  • C. End user
  • D. Data owner

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 442
After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

  • A. Remove the developer's access.
  • B. Review, the results of pre-migration testing.
  • C. Re-certify the application access controls.
  • D. Escalate the issue to the service provider.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 443
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

  • A. The number of resolved security incidents
  • B. The number of security incidents escalated to senior management
  • C. The number of newly identified security incidents
  • D. The number of recurring security incidents

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 444
Which of the following BEST enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives?

  • A. Assigning quantitative values to qualitative metrics in the risk register.
  • B. Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results.
  • C. Prioritizing global standards over local requirements in the risk profile.
  • D. Engaging external risk professionals to periodically review the risk.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 445
Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk of a policy that inadequately defines data and system ownership?

  • A. Explanation:
    There is an increased risk without a policy defining who has the responsibility for granting access
    to specific data or systems, as one could gain system access without a justified business needs.
    There is better chance that business objectives will be properly supported when there is
    appropriate ownership.
  • B. Specific user accountability cannot be established
  • C. User management coordination does not exists
  • D. Audit recommendations may not be implemented
  • E. Users may have unauthorized access to originate, modify or delete data

Answer: E

Explanation:
B, and D are incorrect. These risks are not such significant as compared to
unauthorized access.

 

NEW QUESTION 446
An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

  • A. Resources may be inefficiently allocated.
  • B. Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.
  • C. The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.
  • D. Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 447
Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

  • A. Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.
  • B. Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.
  • C. Obtain vendor references from third parties.
  • D. Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 448
Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events?

  • A. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watchlist for future monitoring.
  • B. Because they are low probability and low impact, the risks can be dismissed.
  • C. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to the risk register.
  • D. Because they are low probability and low impact, Stephen should accept the risks.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watchlist for future monitoring.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The risk response for these events may be to accept them, but the best answer is to first add them to a watchlist.
C: Risks are not dismissed; they are at least added to a watchlist for monitoring.
D: While the risks may eventually be added to the register, the best answer is to first add them to the watchlist for monitoring.

 

NEW QUESTION 449
Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

  • A. Service level agreement monitoring
  • B. A control self-assessment
  • C. A third-party security assessment report
  • D. Internal audit reports from the vendor

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

 

NEW QUESTION 450
Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

  • A. Value of information assets
  • B. Threats and vulnerabilities
  • C. Complexity of the IT infrastructure
  • D. Management culture

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 451
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CRISC Dumps and Practice Test (930 Exam Questions): https://www.briandumpsprep.com/CRISC-prep-exam-braindumps.html

Released ISACA CRISC Updated Questions PDF: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1uIpvsXXzEMUEWgWj0ezRHuPnABnppvo2