CRISC Exam Dumps Pass with Updated Jul-2026 Tests Dumps
CRISC exam questions for practice in 2026 Updated 1983 Questions
The CRISC certification is a valuable credential for professionals in the field of information systems risk management. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is recognized globally and demonstrates an individual's expertise in managing information systems risks and implementing information systems controls. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is suitable for professionals in various roles, including IT risk managers, IT auditors, IT security professionals, and IT consultants. Obtaining the CRISC certification requires passing a rigorous exam that tests the candidate's knowledge and understanding of information systems risk management and control.
NEW QUESTION # 138
You are the project manager of your project. You have to analyze various project risks. You have opted for quantitative analysis instead of qualitative risk analysis. What is the MOST significant drawback of using quantitative analysis over qualitative risk analysis?
- A. higher reliance on skilled personnel
- B. lower management buy-in
- C. lower objectivity
- D. higher cost
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quantitative risk analysis is generally more complex and thus is costlier than qualitative risk analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Neither of the two risk analysis methods is fully objective. Qualitative method subjectively assigns high, medium and low frequency and impact categories to a specific risk, whereas quantitative method subjectivity expressed in mathematical "weights".
C: To be effective, both processes require personnel who have a good understanding of the business. So there is equal requirement of skilled personnel in both.
D: Quantitative analysis generally has a better buy-in than qualitative analysis to the point where it can cause over-reliance on the results. Hence this option is not correct.
NEW QUESTION # 139
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
- A. Executive management team
- B. Audit committee
- C. Chief information officer (CIO)
- D. Business process owner
Answer: A
Explanation:
Strategic decisions on risk management are the decisions that involve setting the direction, objectives, and priorities for risk management within an organization, as well as aligning them with the organization's overall strategy, vision, and mission1. Strategic decisions on risk management also involve defining the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and level of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept to achieve its goals2. The responsibility for strategic decisions on risk management should belong to the executive management team, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization's performance and governance3. The executive management team has the best understanding of the organization's strategic context, environment, and stakeholders, and can make informed and balanced decisions that consider the benefits and costs of risk-taking4. The executive management team also has the ability and responsibility to communicate and cascade the strategic decisions on risk management to the rest of the organization, and to monitor and evaluate their implementation and outcomes5. The chief information officer (CIO), the audit committee, and the business process owner are not the best choices for being responsible for strategic decisions on risk management, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the executive management team. The CIO is the senior leader who oversees the organization's information and technology strategy, resources, and systems6. The CIO may be involved in providing input and feedback to the executive management team on the strategic decisions on risk management, especially those related to IT risk, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for them. The audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors that oversees the organization's financial reporting, internal controls, and external audits7. The audit committee may be involved in reviewing and approving the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as ensuring their compliance with the relevant laws and standards, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to make or implement them.
The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that supports or enables the organization's objectives and functions. The business process owner may be involved in executing and reporting on the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as identifying and mitigating the risks related to their business process, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to make or communicate them. References = 1: Strategic Risk Management: Complete Overview (With Examples)2:
[Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 3: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles and Responsibilities] 4: Stanford Strategic Decision and Risk Management | Stanford Online5: A 7-Step Process for Strategic Risk Management - RiskOptics - Reciprocity6: [Chief Information Officer (CIO) - Gartner IT Glossary] 7: [Audit Committee - Overview, Functions, and Responsibilities] : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.]
NEW QUESTION # 140
The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:
- A. develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios
- B. develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy
- C. identify root causes for relevant events
- D. perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 141
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
- A. Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
- B. Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
- C. Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
- D. Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario
related to remote network access?
- A. Creating metrics to track remote connections
- B. Implementing multi-factor authentication
- C. Updating the organizational policy for remote access
- D. Updating remote desktop software
Answer: B
Explanation:
Automated asset management software is the best method to track asset inventory, as it can provide accurate,
timely, and comprehensive information about the organization's IT assets, such as their location, status,
configuration, ownership, and value. Automated asset management software can also help to optimize the
utilization, performance, and lifecycle of the IT assets, and to reduce the risks of loss, theft, damage, or
obsolescence. Automated asset management software can integrate with other systems, such as configuration
management database (CMDB), service desk, and security tools, to enable better visibility, control, and
governance of the IT assets.
References:
*ISACA, IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control Implementation Model1
*ISACA, IT Asset Management: It's All About Process2
*ISACA, IT Asset Management Audit/Assurance Program3
NEW QUESTION # 143
Jane, the Director of Sales, contacts you and demands that you add a new feature to the software your project team is creating for the organization. In the meeting she tells you how important the scope change would be. You explain to her that the software is almost finished and adding a change now could cause the deliverable to be late, cost additional funds, and would probably introduce new risks to the project. Jane stands up and says to you, "I am the Director of Sales and this change will happen in the project." And then she leaves the room. What should you do with this verbal demand for a change in the project?
- A. Include the change in the project scope immediately.
- B. Direct your project team to include the change if they have time.
- C. Do not implement the verbal change request.
- D. Report Jane to your project sponsor and then include the change.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is a verbal change request, and verbal change requests are never implemented. They introduce risk and cannot be tracked in the project scope. Change requests are requests to expand or reduce the project scope, modify policies, processes, plans, or procedures, modify costs or budgets or revise schedules.
These requests for a change can be direct or indirect, externally or internally initiated, and legally or contractually imposed or optional. A Project Manager needs to ensure that only formally documented requested changes are processed and only approved change requests are implemented.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Including the verbal change request circumvents the project's change control system.
B: Directing the project team to include the change request if they have time is not a valid option. The project manager and the project team will have all of the project team already accounted for so there is no extra time for undocumented, unapproved change requests.
D: You may want to report Jane to the project sponsor, but you are not obligated to include the verbal change request.
NEW QUESTION # 144
Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?
- A. Transfer
- B. Acceptance
- C. Avoidance
- D. Mitigation
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Risk Treatment Strategy - Avoidance:
* Definition: Risk avoidance involves taking actions to completely eliminate a risk by discontinuing the activities or conditions that give rise to it.
* Application: In this case, the organization decided to shut down its online sales order system temporarily to avoid the risk of a data breach until sufficient controls are implemented.
* Steps Involved:
* Identifying the Risk: Recognizing the potential for a data breach due to inadequate controls.
* Decision to Avoid: Determining that the best course of action is to shut down the system to prevent any possible breach.
* Implementation: Taking immediate action to shut down the system and communicate this decision to relevant stakeholders.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Transfer: Involves shifting the risk to another party (e.g., through insurance), which is not applicable here.
* Mitigation: Involves reducing the impact or likelihood of the risk, but does not eliminate it completely as avoidance does.
* Acceptance: Accepting the risk without taking action, which is not the chosen strategy here.
* Best Practices:
* Comprehensive Risk Assessment: Conduct thorough risk assessments to determine when risk avoidance is the most appropriate strategy.
* Clear Communication: Ensure all stakeholders are informed about the decision and the reasons behind it.
* CRISC Review Manual: Provides detailed explanations of different risk treatment strategies, including avoidance.
* ISACA Guidelines: Highlight the importance of choosing the appropriate risk treatment strategy based on the specific risk scenario.
References:
NEW QUESTION # 145
Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?
- A. Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices
- B. Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls
- C. Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy
- D. Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 146
Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:
- A. the end-user license agreement has expired.
- B. automation cannot be applied to the control
- C. business benefits exceed the loss exposure.
- D. the control is difficult to enforce in practice.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely justification for risk acceptance of an exception to a security control is when the business benefits exceed the loss exposure. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and tolerating the risk, without taking any action to reduce or transfer the risk. An exception to a security control is a deviation or non-compliance from the established security policy or standard, due to a valid business reason or circumstance. Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control may be justified when the business benefits exceed the loss exposure, which means that the value or advantage of the exception outweighs the potential cost or harm of the risk. For example, an exception to a security control may enable faster or easier access to the system or data, which may improve the productivity, efficiency, or satisfaction of the users or customers, and generate more revenue or profit for the business. The business benefits of the exception may exceed the loss exposure of the risk, which may be low or negligible, or may be mitigated by other controls or factors. Therefore, risk acceptance of an exception to a security control may be a reasonable and rational decision, based on the cost-benefit analysis of the exception and the risk. Automation cannot be applied to the control, the end-user license agreement has expired, and the control is difficult to enforce in practice are not the most likely justifications for risk acceptance of an exception to a security control, as they are either irrelevant or insufficient reasons, and they do not consider the business benefits or the loss exposure of the exception and the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following risks is the risk that happen with an important business partner and affects a large group of enterprises within an area or industry?
- A. Reporting risk
- B. Explanation:
Systemic risks are those risks that happen with an important business partner and affect a large group of enterprises within an area or industry. An example would be a nationwide air traffic control system that goes down for an extended period of time (six hours), which affects air traffic on a very large scale. - C. Contagious risk
- D. Systemic risk
- E. Operational risk
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Contagious risks are those risk events that happen with several of the enterprise's business partners within a very short time frame. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Their scopes do not limit to the important or general enterprise's business partners. These risks can occur with both. Operational risks are those risks that are associated with the day-to-day operations of the enterprise. It is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and
systems, or from external events.
Reporting risks are caused due to wrong reporting which leads to bad decision. This bad decision
due to wrong report hence causes a risk on the functionality of the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?
- A. Extending the date of a future action plan by two months
- B. Retiring a risk scenario no longer used
- C. Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted
- D. Changing a risk owner
Answer: C
Explanation:
* A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
* A risk register update is a change or modification to the information or status of the risks and their responses in the risk register. It may be triggered by the occurrence or resolution of a risk event, the identification or evaluation of a new or emerging risk, the implementation or completion of a risk response, the monitoring or review of the risk performance, etc.
* The most important risk register update for senior management to review is avoiding a risk that was previously accepted, which means that the organization has decided to eliminate or withdraw from the risk exposure or activity that may cause the risk, instead of tolerating or retaining the risk as before. This may indicate a significant change in the organization's risk appetite, strategy, objectives, or environment, and it may have a major impact on the organization's performance and value.
* The other options are not the most important risk register updates for senior management to review, because they do not indicate a significant change or impact on the organization's risk profile or
* performance.
* Extending the date of a future action plan by two months means that the organization has postponed the implementation or completion of the planned actions or measures to address the risk, due to some reasons or constraints. This may indicate a delay or deviation from the expected or desired risk outcome, but it may not have a major impact on the organization's performance and value, unless the risk is very urgent or critical.
* Retiring a risk scenario no longer used means that the organization has removed or discarded the risk scenario that is no longer relevant or applicable to the organization's objectives or operations, due to some changes or developments. This may indicate a reduction or improvement in the organization's risk exposure or level, but it may not have a major impact on the organization's performance and value, unless the risk scenario was very significant or influential.
* Changing a risk owner means that the organization has assigned or transferred the responsibility and accountability for the risk and its response to a different person or role, due to some reasons or circumstances. This may indicate a change or improvement in the organization's risk governance or culture, but it may not have a major impact on the organization's performance and value, unless the risk owner was very ineffective or inappropriate. References =
* ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48,
54-55, 58-59, 62-63
* ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 160
* CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
NEW QUESTION # 149
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
- A. Encryption
- B. Least privilege access
- C. Ability to overwrite
- D. Inability to edit
Answer: D
Explanation:
A security log is a record of security-related events or activities that occur in an IT system, network, or application, such as user authentication, access control, firewall activity, or intrusion detection1. Security logscan help to monitor and audit the security posture and performance of the IT environment, and to detect and investigate any security incidents, breaches, or anomalies2.
The integrity of a security log refers to the accuracy and completeness of the log data, and the assurance that the log data has not been modified, deleted, or tampered with by unauthorized or malicious parties3. The integrity of a security log is essential for ensuring the reliability and validity of the log analysis and reporting, and for providing evidence and accountability for security incidents and compliance4.
Among the four options given, the most important factor to the integrity of a security log is the inability to edit. This means that the security log data should be protected from any unauthorized or accidental changes or alterations, such as adding, deleting, or modifying log entries, or changing the log format or timestamps5. The inability to edit can be achieved by implementing various controls and measures, such as:
Applying digital signatures or hashes to the log data to verify its authenticity and integrity Encrypting the log data to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure Implementing least privilege access to the log data to restrict who can view, modify, or delete the log data Using write-once media or devices to store the log data, such as CD-ROMs or WORM drives Sending the log data to a secure and centralized log server or repository, and using syslog or other protocols to ensure secure and reliable log transmission Performing regular backups and archiving of the log data to prevent data loss or corruption References = Security Log: Best Practices for Logging and Management, Security Audit Logging Guideline, Confidentiality, Integrity, & Availability: Basics of Information Security, Steps for preserving the integrity of log data, Guide to Computer Security Log Management
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''
- A. A report with control environment assessment results
- B. A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases
- C. A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)
- D. A summary of risk response plans with validation results
Answer: C
Explanation:
A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs) is the best way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board because it provides a concise and visual overview of the current risk status, trends, and performance of the organization. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help the board monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. A summary of risk response plans, a report with control environment assessment results, and a summary of IT risk scenarios are all useful information, but they are too detailed and technical for the board, who needs a high-level and strategic view of the risk management program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter
4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
NEW QUESTION # 151
An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?
- A. Implement loT device monitoring software.
- B. Develop new loT risk scenarios.
- C. Engage external security reviews.
- D. Introduce controls to the new threat environment.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 152
Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?
- A. Determining which departments contribute most to risk
- B. Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners
- C. Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes
- D. Determining resource dependency of assets
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses,
and owners. The owner for each risk scenario is the person or group whohas the authority and accountability
to manage the risk and its response. The best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register
is to map the identified risk factors to specific business processes. Risk factors are the internal and external
variables that influence the occurrence and impact of risks. Business processes are the activities that produce
value for the enterprise, such as sales, marketing, production, or delivery. By mapping the risk factors to the
business processes, the risk practitioner can determine which business process is affected by or contributes to
the risk, and who is responsible for the business process. The owner for each risk scenario should be the
person or group who is responsible for the business process that is associated with the risk. The other options
are not the best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as they involve different criteria or methods:
Determining which departments contribute most to risk means that the risk practitioner evaluates the degree
of involvement or exposure of each department to the risk. This may not be a reliable or consistent way to
identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the risk may span across multiple departments, or the department
may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners means that the risk practitioner assigns the
same level of responsibility to each person or group who owns an asset that is affected by or contributes to the
risk. An asset is a resource that has value for the enterprise, such as hardware, software, data, or people. This
may not be a fair or effective way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the asset owners may have
different levels of involvement or exposure to the risk, or may not have the authority or accountability to
manage the risk.
Determining resource dependency of assets means that the risk practitioner analyzes the relationship and
interdependence of the assets that are affected by or contribute to the risk. This may help to identify the
potential impact or likelihood of the risk, but it does not directly help to identify the owner for each risk
scenario, as the resource dependency may not reflect the authority or accountability to manage the
risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section
3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
NEW QUESTION # 153
Which of the following introduces the GREATEST amount of risk during the software development life cycle (SDLC)?
- A. Inability to pass user acceptance tests (UATs)
- B. Incorrect firewall configuration
- C. Untested changes to production
- D. Use of debugging tools
Answer: C
Explanation:
CRISC emphasizes that untested changes in production represent high operational risk due to potential downtime, integrity issues, or security failures.
Supporting extract:
"Untested changes to production systems introduce the greatest amount of risk because they may disrupt operations or introduce security vulnerabilities." UAT failure or debugging pose limited impact confined to pre-production stages.
Hence, D is the correct and verified answer.
CRISC Reference: Domain 2 - IT Risk Assessment, Topic: Risk in the System Development Life Cycle.
NEW QUESTION # 154
An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be
revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?
- A. New potentially disruptive scenarios
- B. Contractual changes with customers
- C. Variances in recovery times
- D. Ownership assignment for controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
When an organization restructures its business processes, the first step in revising the BCP is to identify new
potentially disruptive scenarios that may affect the continuity of the critical functions and processes. This can
be done by conducting a risk assessment or a business impact analysis (BIA) to determine the likelihood and
impact of various threats and vulnerabilities onthe organization's objectives and operations. By identifying
new potentially disruptive scenarios, the organization can then update its recovery strategies, objectives, and
plans accordingly.
References:
*ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 761
*ISACA, IT Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery Audit Program, 2021, p. 52
NEW QUESTION # 155
An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:
- A. risk owners have decision-making authority.
- B. senior management has oversight of the process.
- C. process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.
- D. segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 156
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?
- A. Promotion of a risk-aware culture
- B. Facilitation of risk-aware decision making
- C. Compilation of a comprehensive risk register
- D. Alignment of business activities
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?
- A. Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed
- B. Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding
- C. Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities
- D. Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?
- A. Software version
- B. Software licensing information
- C. Assigned software manager
- D. Software support contract expiration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The software version is the component of a software inventory that best enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities. The software version is the specific release or update of a software product that has a unique identifier, such as a number or a name. The software version indicates the features, functions, and security patches that are included in the software product. By knowing the software version, the organization can compare it with the latest available version and identify any missing or outdated security fixes. The organization can then mitigate the known vulnerabilities by updating or upgrading the software to the latest version. The other components of a software inventory, such as the assigned software manager, the software support contract expiration, and the software licensing information, are not as directly related to the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities, although they may provide some contextual or administrative information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 2-25.
NEW QUESTION # 159
Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?
- A. Risk tolerance
- B. Risk response
- C. Risk magnitude
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk heat map is a kind of risk matrix where risks are ranked based on their potential impact and their likelihood of occurring, which allows you to prioritize the risks that pose the greatest threat. The severity of each risk is indicated by color, usually green for low risk, red for high risk, and yellow for medium risk.
Therefore, from a single data point on a risk heat map, one can interpret the risk magnitude, which is the product of impact and likelihood. The other options are not directly related to a single data point on a risk heat map, but rather to the overall risk management strategy and context. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative; What Is a Risk Heat Map, and How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy; CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control - Question599
NEW QUESTION # 160
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?
- A. To provide a centralized view of risk
- B. To assign control ownership of risk
- C. To identify opportunities to transfer risk
- D. To mitigate organizational risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to ISACA, a risk register is a tool to record and track the identified risks, their ratings, responses,
and status. The primary purpose of a risk register is to provide a centralized view of risk for the organization,
as it enables the consolidation, communication, and reporting of risk information across different levels, units,
and functions. A risk register can also support the risk management process, such as risk identification,
assessment, treatment, monitoring, and review.
References:
*ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 761
*ISACA, Capability Maturity Model and Risk Register Integration: The Right Approach to Enterprise
Governance2
NEW QUESTION # 161
A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve
business stakeholders is when:
- A. updating the risk register.
- B. identifying risk mitigation controls.
- C. documenting the risk scenarios.
- D. validating the risk scenarios.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the most important time to involve business stakeholders in the
development of bottom-up IT risk scenarios is when validating the risk scenarios, as they can provide
valuable input on the relevance, completeness, and accuracy of the scenarios and their impact on the business
objectives and processes2
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100001 2: CRISC Review
Manual, 7th Edition, page 97
NEW QUESTION # 162
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