NCLEX NCLEX-RN Deluxe Study Guide with Online Test Engine [Q314-Q331]

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NCLEX NCLEX-RN Deluxe Study Guide with Online Test Engine

NCLEX-RN dumps review - Professional Quiz Study Materials


NCLEX-RN exam covers a wide range of nursing topics, including patient care, pharmacology, nursing procedures, health promotion, and disease prevention. It is a comprehensive and rigorous exam that assesses not only a nurse's knowledge, but also their critical thinking, problem-solving, and decision-making abilities. Passing the NCLEX-RN is a significant milestone in a nurse's career, as it demonstrates their competence and readiness to provide safe and effective patient care. NCLEX-RN exam is recognized by all 50 US states and the District of Columbia, as well as several US territories and Canadian provinces, making it a critical step in the nursing licensure process.


The National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN) is an essential exam that aspiring nurses must pass to become licensed nurses in the United States. The NCLEX-RN is a standardized test that measures a candidate's knowledge and skills in the field of nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is recognized by all U.S. state and territorial nursing boards.

 

NEW QUESTION # 314
A 9-week-old female infant has a diagnosis of bilateral cleft lip and cleft palate. She has been admitted to the pediatric unit after surgical repair of the cleft lip. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate during the first 24 hours?

  • A. Maintain elbow restraints in place unless she is being directly supervised.
  • B. Offer pacifier when she cries.
  • C. Position on side or abdomen.
  • D. Clean suture line every shift.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Placing the infant on her abdomen may allow for injury to the suture line. (B) Elbow restraints prevent the infant from touching the suture line and yet leaves hands free. (C) The suture line is cleaned as often as every hour to prevent crusting and scarring. (D) Sucking of a bottle or pacifier places pressure on the suture line and may delay healing and cause scarring.


NEW QUESTION # 315
A client hospitalized with a medical diagnosis of adjustment disorder versus personality disorder states,
"Nobody cares about the clients." The nurse's most effective response would be:

  • A. "How can you say that I don't care? We just met."
  • B. "You seem angry. Tell me more about how you feel."
  • C. "You will feel differently about us in a few days."
  • D. "What makes you think the nurses don't care?"

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This statement is a defensive response that places the nurse in a vulnerable countertransference position, and at the same time, fails to challenge the client's "splitting" behavior. (B) This statement is a defensive response by the nurse. In addition, this type of nontherapeutic statement requests that the client explain the reasons for her behavior, a difficult task for an individual with limited insight. (C) This statement is a nontherapeutic response that both ignores the intensity of the client's emotions and the dynamics underlying
"splitting" behavior. (D) By simultaneously acknowledging the client's emotional intensity and gently challenging her "splitting" behavior, the nurse addresses the client's current distortions and prepares for further interventions with angry or ambivalent feelings.


NEW QUESTION # 316
A client is in active labor and has been admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The RN has just done a sterile vaginal exam and determines that the client is dilated 5 cm, effaced 85%, and the fetus's head is at 0 station.
She asks if she could have a lumbar epidural now. The epidural is started, and the anesthetic agent used is bupivacaine (Marcaine). After the client has received her lumbar epidural, it is important for the RN to monitor her for which of the following side effects:

  • A. Hypertension
  • B. Hypotension
  • C. Hyperglycemia
  • D. Hypoglycemia

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) The medication bupivacaine will cause vasodilation in the vascular system, and this does not result in elevation of the ma-ternal blood pressure. (B) The medication bupivacaine will cause vasodilation in the vascular system, and this will result in lowering the maternal blood pressure. (C) Bupivacaine does not interfere with the functioning of the endocrine system. (D) Bupivacaine does not interfere with the functioning of the endocrine system.


NEW QUESTION # 317
A family by court order undergoes treatment by a family therapist for child abuse. The nurse, who is the child's case manager knows that treatment has been effective when:

  • A. The child is removed from the home and placed in foster care
  • B. The child's parents can identify appropriate behaviors for children in his age group
  • C. The child's parents identify the ways in which he is different from the rest of the family
  • D. The child's father is arrested for child abuse

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Removing an abused child from the home and placement in a foster home are not the desired outcome of treatment. (B) Children who are perceived as "different" from the rest of the family are more likely to be abused. (C) Although legal action may be taken against abusive parents, it is not an indicator of an effective treatment program. (D) Identification of age-appropriate behaviors is essential to the role of parents, because misunderstanding children's normal developmental needs often contributes to abuse or neglect.


NEW QUESTION # 318
A client is experiencing visual problems at school. She has complained of difficulty seeing the blackboard and squinting. She no longer likes to participate in physical activities such as softball. The client has displayed possible classic symptoms of which refractive error?

  • A. Hyperopia
  • B. Amblyopia
  • C. Myopia
  • D. Astigmatism

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Visual images are blurred and distorted. (B) Symptoms are headaches, burning eyes, fatigue, squinting, and difficulty reading. (C) These symptoms are classic for myopia. (D) Amblyopia is not a refractive error. It is a loss of vision in one or both eyes.


NEW QUESTION # 319
The nurse is admitting a client with folic acid deficiency anemia. Which of the following questions is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

  • A. "Have your stools been normal?"
  • B. "Do you take aspirin on a regular basis?"
  • C. "Do you drink alcohol on a regular basis?"
  • D. "Do you eat red meat?"

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Aspirin does not affect folic acid absorption. (B) Folic acid deficiency is strongly associated with alcohol abuse. (C) Because folic acid is a coenzyme for single carbon transfer purines, calves liver or other purines are the meat sources. (D) Folic acid does not affect stool character.


NEW QUESTION # 320
Stat serum electrolytes ordered for a client in acute renal failure revealed a serum potassium level of 6.4. The physician is immediately notified and orders 50 mL of dextrose and 10 U of regular insulin IV push. The nurse administering these drugs knows the Rationale for this therapy is to:

  • A. Promote rapid protein catabolism
  • B. Protect the myocardium from the effects of hypokalemia
  • C. Drive potassium from the serum back into the cells
  • D. Remove the potassium from the body by renin exchange

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), a cation exchange resin, exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine reducing the serum potassium. (B) Calcium is administered to protect the myocardium from the adverse effects of hyperkalemia. Serum levels reflect hyperkalemia. (C) Rapid catabolism releases potassium from the body tissue into the bloodstream. Infection and hyperthermia increase the process of catabolism. (D) The administration of dextrose and regular insulin IV forces potassium back into the cells decreasing the potassium in the serum.


NEW QUESTION # 321
In healthcare settings, nurses must be familiar with primary, secondary, and tertiary levels of care. As a nurse in the community, which of the following interventions might be a primary prevention strategy?

  • A. Crisis intervention with an intoxicated teenager whose mother just committed suicide
  • B. Referring a client who has been on a detoxification unit to a rehabilitation center
  • C. Teaching fifth-grade children the harmful effects of substance abuse
  • D. Counseling a client with post-traumatic stress disorder

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) The teenager is already coping ineffectively and requires early detection and treatment, which is secondary prevention. (B) The client must be sent to a rehabilitation unit, which requires tertiary prevention. (C) Reducing the incidence of disease through education supports primary prevention. (D) A client with identified symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder requires intervention by treatment.


NEW QUESTION # 322
On the third postpartum day, a client complains of extremely tender breasts. On palpation, the nurse notes a very firm, shiny appearance to the breasts and some milk leakage. She is bottle feeding. The nurse should initially recommend to her to:

  • A. Take a warm shower and express milk from both breasts until empty
  • B. Allow the infant to breast-feed at the next feeding time to empty the breasts
  • C. Take 2 ibuprofen (Motrin) tablets by mouth now because the baby will be returning for feeding in 20 minutes
  • D. Apply ice packs to the breasts and wear a supportive, well-fitting bra

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Judicious use of analgesics is appropriate with breast engorgement; however, mechanical suppression would be the initial recommendation. (B) Breast-feeding every 11⁄2-3 hours will reduce and/or prevent breast engorgement. Breast-feeding will promote milk production, which will compound the distention and stasis of the venous circulation of engorgement in a bottlefeeding mother. (C) Ice packs reduce milk flow while the snug, supportive bra provides mechanical suppression and decreases pulling on Cooper's ligament. In addition, breast binders or ace bandages may be used for some women. (D) Warmth promotes milk production and may stimulate the let-down reflex. These measures would contribute to the venous congestion of engorgement.


NEW QUESTION # 323
Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when:

  • A. A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides
  • B. The physician orders it
  • C. The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave
  • D. The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) The physician may order release of restraints, but prior to that, the client must meet criteria for release. (B) While the client is still restrained, but after violent behavior has subsided, a therapeutic bridge is built. This alliance encourages dialogue between nurse and client, allowing the client to determine causative factors, feelings prior to loss of control, and adaptive alternatives to violence. (C) If the client only "agrees to behave" after violent behavior subsides, he has developed no insight into cause and effect of violence or his response to stress. (D)Removal of restraints occurs only when the client meets the criteria for release, not just because the nurse says it is necessary.


NEW QUESTION # 324
A 27-year-old male client is admitted to the acute care mental health unit for observation. He has recently lost his job, and his wife told him yesterday that she wants a divorce. The client is placed on suicide precautions. In assessing suicide potential, the nurse should pay close attention to the client's:

  • A. Abstracting abilities
  • B. Thought processes
  • C. Mood and affect
  • D. Level of insight

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Assessing the client's level of insight is an important part of the mental status exam (MSE), but it does not reflect suicide potential. (B) Assessing the client's thought processes is an important part of the MSE, but it does not reflect suicide potential. (C) Assessing the client's mood and affect is an important part of the MSE, and it can be a very valuable indicator of suicide potential. Frequently a client who has decided to proceed with suicide plans will exhibit a suddenly improved mood and affect. (D) Assessing a client's abstracting abilities is an important part of the MSE, but it does not reflect suicide potential.


NEW QUESTION # 325
A client is dilated 8 cm and entering the transition phase of labor. Common behaviors of the laboring woman during transition are:

  • A. Calmness, follows directions easily
  • B. Frustration, vague in communication
  • C. Seriousness, some difficulty following directions
  • D. Excitement, openness to instructions

Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) During the transition phase, the mother may become frustrated and unclear in her communication owing to severe pain and fear of loss of control. (B) These behaviors are common in the active phase of labor. (C) These behavioral clues are seen in the latent phase of labor. (D) These characteristics are observed in the latent phase of labor.


NEW QUESTION # 326
An IDDM client's condition stabilizes. He begins to receive a daily injection of NPH insulin at 6:30 AM. The nurse can most likely expect a hypoglycemic reaction to occur that same day at:

  • A. 10:30 PM-11:30 PM
  • B. 8:30 AM-10:30 AM
  • C. 7:30 PM-9:30 PM
  • D. 2:30 PM-4:30 PM

Answer: D

Explanation:
(A)
This time describes the time of onset of NPH insulin's action, rather than its peak effect.
(B)
NPH insulin, an intermediateacting insulin, usually begins to lower serum glucose levels about 2 hours after administration. The action of NPH insulin peaks 8-14 hours after administration. It has a 20-30 hour duration. (C) The time stated is not the time of peak action for NPH insulin administered at 6:30 AM. (D) The time stated is not the time of peak action for NPH insulin administered at 6:30 AM.


NEW QUESTION # 327
Early in her ninth month of pregnancy, a client has been diagnosed as having mild preeclampsia. In counseling her about her diet, the nurse must emphasize the importance of:

  • A. Increasing her carbohydrate intake
  • B. Eating a moderate to high-protein diet
  • C. Decreasing her sodium intake
  • D. Decreasing her fluids

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Women with pregnancy-induced hypertension have a reduced plasma volume secondary to venous vessel constriction, not hypovolemia; therefore, sodium restriction is not recommended. It is suggested that these women avoid extremely salty foods. (B) Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day facilitates optimal fluid volume and renal perfusion, but it will not decrease the venous vessel constriction of pregnancy-induced hypertension. (C) Carbohydrate needs increase during pregnancy, specifically during the second and third trimesters, but they have not been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension. (D) Loss of urinary protein (proteinuria) is associated with increased permeability of the large protein molecules with pregnancy-induced hypertension.Additional dietary protein also helps increase the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Diets deficient in protein have been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension.


NEW QUESTION # 328
A schizophrenic is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What affect would the nurse expect to observe?

  • A. Anger
  • B. Smiling
  • C. Hostility
  • D. Apathy and flatness

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Anger is an emotion that is not necessarily present in schizophrenia. (B) Lack of response to or involvement with environment and distancing are characteristic of schizophrenia. (C) Euphoria is more characteristic of manic-depressive disorder (bipolar disorder). (D) Hostility is an emotion that is not necessarily present in schizophrenia.


NEW QUESTION # 329
A 50-year-old depressed client has recently lost his job. He has been reluctant to leave his hospital room.
Nursing care would include:

  • A. Monitoring elimination patterns
  • B. Providing sensory stimulation
  • C. Encouraging the client to discuss why he is so sad
  • D. Forcing the client to attend all unit activities

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The client should be encouraged to attend the unit activities. The nurse and client should choose a few activities for the client to attend that will be positive experiences for him. (B) The nurse should encourage the client to discuss his feelings and to begin to deal with the depression. (C) Depressed persons often have little appetite and poor fluid intake. Constipation is common. (D) A calm, consistent level of stimuli is most effective. Sensory deprivation and overstimulation should be avoided.


NEW QUESTION # 330
The physician orders fluoxetine (Prozac) for a depressed client. Which of the following should the nurse remember about fluoxetine?

  • A. Because fluoxetine is a tricyclic antidepressant, it may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.
  • B. Fluoxetine may be administered safely in combination with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors.
  • C. Foods such as aged cheese, yogurt, soy sauce, and bananas should not be eaten with this drug.
  • D. The therapeutic effect of the drug occurs 2-4 weeks after treatment is begun.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Fluoxetine is not a tricyclic antidepressant. It is an atypical antidepressant. (B) This statement is true.
(C) These foods are high in tyramine and should be avoided when the client is taking MAO inhibitors.
Fluoxetine is not an MAO inhibitor. (D) Fatal reactions have been reported in clients receiving fluoxetine in combination with MAO inhibitors.


NEW QUESTION # 331
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The NCLEX NCLEX-RN exam covers a broad range of topics related to nursing practice, including health promotion and maintenance, psychosocial integrity, physiological adaptation, and pharmacological and parenteral therapies. The questions are designed to test the test-taker's critical thinking and clinical reasoning skills, as well as their ability to apply nursing concepts and principles in real-world situations.

 

Exam Questions Answers Braindumps NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps PDF Questions: https://www.briandumpsprep.com/NCLEX-RN-prep-exam-braindumps.html

NCLEX-RN Test Prep Training Practice Exam Questions Practice Tests: https://drive.google.com/open?id=11ucnr6uxZqX3AjYilXpgp-BSArhbcet6