Exam Dumps 701-100 Practice Free Latest Lpi Practice Tests [Q27-Q49]

Exam Dumps 701-100 Practice Free Latest Lpi Practice Tests

701-100 Exam Questions | Real 701-100 Practice Dumps

NEW QUESTION # 27
An Ansible variable file contains the following content:
myapp:
option1: one
Which of the following strings can be used to reference the defined variable? (Choose two correct answers).

• A. myapp{{option1}}
• B. myapp(option1);
• C. myapp['option1']
• D. myapp.option1
• E. option1@myapp

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
* C. Ansible allows accessing variables using the dictionary-style syntax myapp['option1'].
* D. Alternatively, dot notation can be used to access nested variables: myapp.option1.
References: Ansible Documentation - Variables

NEW QUESTION # 28
How is cloud-init integrated with a managed system image?

• A. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-daemon service which is launched during startup and keeps the instance in sync with the desired configuration.
• B. cloud-init provides a Linux kernel module that must be included and loaded in the instance's initramfs.
• C. cloud-init provides its own startup mechanism which replaces the instance's original init system, such as systemd.
• D. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-worker command which has to be invoked periodically within the running instance.
• E. cloud-init provides systemd units which must be included in several stages of the booting process of the instance.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Cloud-init is a tool used to initialize cloud instances and configure them on first boot. It integrates with the managed system by providing systemd units that are activated at different stages of the boot process to handle various initialization tasks.
* systemd units: Cloud-init provides several systemd service units which are included in the boot process.
These units handle the early initialization, configuration, and final setup stages.
The other options are incorrect:
* A: There is no cloud-init-worker command.
* C: Cloud-init does not replace the instance's original init system.
* D: Cloud-init does not provide a Linux kernel module.
* E: There is no cloud-init-daemon service that keeps the instance in sync with the desired configuration.
References:
* Cloud-Init Documentation - Systemd

NEW QUESTION # 29
Which docker-machine sub command outputs a list of commands that set environment variables which are required 10 make dock, with a Docket host managed by docker-machine? (Specify ONLY the sub command without any path or parameters.)

Answer:

Explanation:
docker-machine env

NEW QUESTION # 30
Which Ansible keyword is used in a playbook to store the result (i.e. return code) of a task in a variable?

• A. return
• B. output
• C. result
• D. set_fact
• E. register

Answer: E

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/2.5/user_guide/playbooks_conditionals.html

NEW QUESTION # 31
If a Dockerfile references the container's base image without a specific version tag. Which tag of that image is used to create the container?

• A. default
• B. Its
• C. current
• D. latest
• E. nightly

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 32
How is cloud-init integrated with a managed system image?

• A. cloud-init provides systemd units which must be included in several stages of the booting process of the instance.
• B. cloud-init provides a Linux kernel module that must be included and loaded in the instance's initramfs.
• C. cloud-init provides its own startup mechanism which replaces the instance's original init system, such as systemd.
• D. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-workercommand which has to be invoked periodically within the running instance.
• E. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-daemonservice which is launched during startup and keeps the instance in sync with the desired configuration.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following properties apply to a content delivery network? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

• A. CDNs are present in multiple locations lo serve content close to clients.
• B. CDNs serve huge numbers of clients with high bandwidth and low latency.
• C. CDNs can stream large media tiles such as movies or music to clients
• D. CDNs forward all requests to a backend server and never store content locally
• E. CDNs require all elements of a web site to be served by the same CDN.

Answer: B,C,D

NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following statements describes the principal concept behind test driven development?

• A. The only acceptable reason to write a test is to prevent fixed bugs from occurring again.
• B. Tests are written before the function / method is implemented.
• C. Instead of testing software automatically, manual tests are performed and logged daily.
• D. All tests are generated automatically from the tested source code.
• E. Tests may not be written by the same development team that wrote the tested code.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Test-Driven Development (TDD) is a software development process where tests are written before the code that needs to pass the tests is implemented. The principal concept behind TDD is to write a test for a new function or method, see it fail, then write the minimum amount of code required to make the test pass, and finally refactor the code while keeping the tests green.
* Write a Test: Before writing code, a developer writes a test for the desired function or method.
* Run the Test: The new test should fail initially because the function or method hasn't been implemented yet.
* Write Code: Implement the minimum code necessary to pass the test.
* Run Tests: Run all tests to ensure the new code passes and doesn't break any existing functionality.
* Refactor: Clean up the code while ensuring all tests continue to pass.
References:
* Test-Driven Development (TDD)

NEW QUESTION # 35
A service should be provided to arbitrary clients on the Internet using HTTPS. Any standard client on the Internet should be able to consume the service without further configuration. Which of the following approaches can be used to implement these requirements? (Choose three correct answers.)

• A. Use a load balancer that decrypts incoming requests and passes them on in plain HTTP.
• B. Configure the web servers to not use a server certificate when serving HTTPS.
• C. Generate a self-signed certificates during the deployment of each backend server.
• D. Install a wildcard certificate and the respective private key on all the backend servers.
• E. Use a certificate issuing service to request certificates during each server deployment.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
* C. Using a certificate issuing service (e.g., Let's Encrypt) allows each server to obtain a valid, trusted certificate, ensuring secure HTTPS communication.
* D. A load balancer can handle HTTPS termination, decrypting incoming HTTPS requests and forwarding them as plain HTTP to backend servers.
* E. Installing a wildcard certificate on all backend servers ensures that each server can handle HTTPS requests using the same certificate, simplifying management.
References:
* Let's Encrypt Documentation
* AWS Documentation - Load Balancer HTTPS Listener
* Wildcard Certificates - SSL.com

NEW QUESTION # 36
The file index. php. which is being maintained in a git repository, was changed locally and contains an error. If the error has not been committed to the repository yet, which of the following git commands reverts the local copy of index. php to the latest committed version in the current branch?

• A. git revert -- index, php
• B. git checkout -- indox.php
• C. git clean -- indox.php
• D. git repair -- indox.php
• E. git lastver -- index.php

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the log messages below matches the following Logstash grok filter?
grok {
match => ["message", "%{SYSLOGBASE} new node %{IPORHOST:node}" ]
}

• A. %{SYSLOG-FROM:headnode clustermanager[12353]} new node 198.51.100.103
• B. Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode: new node 198.51.100.103 at clustermanager:12353
• C. Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode clustermanager[12353]: new node 198.51.100.103
• D. Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode clustermanager[198.51.100.103]: new node
• E. clustermanager[12353]: Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode new node 198.51.100.103

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 38
What implications does container virtualization have for DevOps? (Choose two answers.)

• A. Containers decouple the packaging of an application from its infrastructure.
• B. Containers require application specific adjustment to the container platform.
• C. Containers let developers test their software under production conditions.
• D. Containers complicate the deployment of software and require early deployment tests.
• E. Containers require developers to have detailed knowledge of their IT infrastructure.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Container virtualization has significant implications for DevOps practices, and the two main implications are:
* Decoupling of Packaging and Infrastructure: Containers encapsulate an application and its dependencies into a single package. This means the application can run consistently across different environments without being affected by differences in the underlying infrastructure. This decoupling facilitates more reliable deployments and easier migration between environments.
* Testing Under Production Conditions: Containers can replicate production environments on a developer's local machine or in a CI/CD pipeline. This allows developers to test their applications under conditions that closely mimic the production environment, which can lead to identifying issues early and ensuring the software behaves as expected when deployed.
The other options are not correct:
* Detailed Knowledge of IT Infrastructure: Containers abstract away much of the underlying infrastructure details, so developers do not need in-depth knowledge of it.
* Complicating Deployment: Containers simplify deployment through standardization and automation, rather than complicating it.
* Application Specific Adjustment: Containers are designed to run applications without the need for significant adjustments specific to the container platform, provided that the container image is correctly configured.
References:
* Docker Documentation
* Kubernetes Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 39
How does Prometheus gather information about monitored hosts and services?

• A. It opens a webhook where monitored applications have to submit various metrics.
• B. It implements the ICMP and SNMP protocols to ping and query remote services.
• C. It queries a relational database for metrics written to the database by monitored applications.
• D. It runs scripts on the Prometheus server which perform tests and return various metrics.
• E. It uses HTTP to retrieve JSON encoded metrics from the monitored objects.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference https://dzone.com/articles/monitoring-with-prometheus

NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following statements describes the principal concept behind test driven development?

• A. The only acceptable reason to write a test is to prevent fixed bugs from occurring again.
• B. Tests are written before the function / method is implemented.
• C. Instead of testing software automatically, manual tests are performed and logged daily.
• D. All tests are generated automatically from the tested source code.
• E. Tests may not be written by the same development team that wrote the tested code.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Test-driven_development

NEW QUESTION # 41
CORRECT TEXT
Which Ansible command is used to manage and store sensitive data in encrypted files?
(Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer:

Explanation:
ansible-vault

NEW QUESTION # 42
Which sections can exist in a Logstash configuration file? (Choose three correct answers.)

• A. forward
• B. filter
• C. generate
• D. input
• E. output

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Reference https://www.elastic.co/guide/en/logstash/current/configuration-file-structure.html

NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following tasks are completed by docker-compose down when it is used with additional parameters? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

• A. Delete all images built from the composer file from their registry
• B. Delete all volumes defined in the composer file.
• C. Delete all containers defined in in the composer file.
• D. Delete all networks defined in the composer file.
• E. Delete all images used in the composer file from the Docker nodes.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
https://docs.docker.com/compose/reference/down/

NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following elements are presents in a Vagrant box file? (Choose two correct answers.)

• A. A metadata file describing the box and its requirements.
• B. Configuration files for provisioners such as Ansible.
• C. A Vagrant guest configuration file that is used to create instances of the box.
• D. The installer for the Vagrant version which is required to run the box.
• E. A base file system image in a format supported by the provider of the box.

Answer: A,B

NEW QUESTION # 45
What implications does container virtualization have for DevOps? (Choose two answers.)

• A. Containers decouple the packaging of an application from its infrastructure.
• B. Containers require application specific adjustment to the container platform.
• C. Containers let developers test their software under production conditions.
• D. Containers complicate the deployment of software and require early deployment tests.
• E. Containers require developers to have detailed knowledge of their IT infrastructure.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference http://anandmanisankar.com/posts/container-docker-PaaS-microservices/

NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following elements are presents in a Vagrant box file? (Choose two correct answers.)

• A. A metadata file describing the box and its requirements.
• B. Configuration files for provisioners such as Ansible.
• C. A Vagrant guest configuration file that is used to create instances of the box.
• D. The installer for the Vagrant version which is required to run the box.
• E. A base file system image in a format supported by the provider of the box.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
A Vagrant box file is a compressed archive containing all the necessary components to launch a virtual machine with Vagrant. It typically includes:
* Metadata file: This file describes the box, its version, and the provider it supports. It contains information needed by Vagrant to understand how to use the box.
* Base file system image: This is the core component of the box, which is a file system image in a format supported by the provider (e.g., VirtualBox, VMware).
The other options are incorrect:
* A: Vagrant guest configuration files are not used to create instances of the box.
* B: Configuration files for provisioners are not typically included in the box file itself.
* C: The installer for the Vagrant version is not included in the box file.
References:
* Vagrant Documentation - Box Format

NEW QUESTION # 47
Which configuration option in the Ansible inventory is issued control privilege escalation of the remote user?

• A. elevate
• B. become
• C. super
• D. sudo
• E. priv_user

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Ansible, the become keyword is used to control privilege escalation. This allows a user to execute tasks with different privileges, such as running tasks as the root user. When become is set to yes, Ansible will use the configured method (such as sudo, su, or others) to elevate privileges.
* become: This directive allows users to control privilege escalation for the tasks they are running. When set to yes, it enables the use of privilege escalation.
* priv_user, elevate, super, and sudo are not valid Ansible inventory configuration options for controlling privilege escalation.
References:
* Ansible Documentation - Privilege Escalation

NEW QUESTION # 48
What statement is true regarding the Swarm service created by the following command?
docker service create --name myweb --network webnet --mode global nginx

• A. It runs on one node by default and can be scaled to an arbitrary number of replicas.
• B. It runs on all nodes which provide the network webnet.
• C. It runs exactly one time in the Swarm and cannot be scaled.
• D. It runs exactly once on each node in a Swarm.
• E. It runs only on those nodes which support the network type global.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The command docker service create --name myweb --network webnet --mode global nginx creates a Docker Swarm service named myweb using the nginx image. The --mode global option specifies that the service should run exactly once on each node in the Swarm cluster.
* Global Mode: When a service is created in global mode, Docker Swarm ensures that exactly one instance of the service runs on each node. This is useful for tasks that should run on all nodes, such as monitoring agents.
The other options are incorrect:
* A: It does not run exactly one time in the Swarm; it runs once on each node.
* C: This describes the replicated mode, not the global mode.
* D: The service runs on all nodes, not just those providing the webnet network.
* E: There is no network type called global.
References:
* Docker Documentation - Service Create
* Docker Documentation - Swarm Services

NEW QUESTION # 49
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Lpi 701-100 exam is available for professionals all over the world seeking Lpi certification in DevOps tools. 701-100 exam is conducted mainly online, and candidates can take the exam at their convenience. Lpi offers extensive preparation materials for the Lpi DevOps Tools Engineer certification exam, including official courseware, self-study guides, and instructor-led training. Candidates can choose the preparation methods that best fit their learning style and schedule.

 

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