EMT Exam Info and Free Practice Test All-in-One Exam Guide Aug-2026
Pass NREMT EMT Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Aug 16, 2026
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NEW QUESTION # 92
A 22-year-old patient fell and had pain in their right arm. The EMT began transporting the patient without splinting the arm. During transport, the patient's pain increased, and a deformity formed. The patient required surgical intervention for a displaced fracture. Based on this example, which of the following elements of negligence could be applied?
- A. Damages
- B. Causation
- C. Breach of duty
- D. Duty to act
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Causation.
Negligence in EMS requires four elements:
Duty to act
Breach of duty
Causation
Damages
Why B is correct (Causation):
Causation means that the EMT's actions (or lack of action) directly caused harm to the patient.
In this scenario:
The EMT failed to splint the arm
During transport, the injury worsened (deformity and displacement)
This led to surgical intervention
This clearly shows a direct link between the EMT's action and the patient's worsening condition.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Damages # Refers to the actual harm or injury, which is present, but the question focuses on the relationship (cause) C). Duty to act # The EMT had a duty, but this is not what the scenario is emphasizing D). Breach of duty # Not splinting is a breach, but the key point is that this breach caused additional harm Exact Extracts:
"Causation means that the EMT's actions directly resulted in injury to the patient."
"Negligence requires duty to act, breach of duty, causation, and damages."
"The provider's actions must be shown to have caused the harm."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations (Medical/Legal)
National EMS Education Standards - Legal Responsibilities
NREMT Candidate Handbook - Negligence and Liability
NEW QUESTION # 93
While performing an initial scene size-up at a motor vehicle collision, what should the EMT determine?
Select the three answer options that are correct.
- A. If entrapment occurred
- B. Site for loading injured patients
- C. Which patients have died
- D. Mechanisms of injury
- E. Severity of the patients
- F. Total number of patients
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Mechanisms of injury, B. If entrapment occurred, and D. Total number of patients.
During the scene size-up, the EMT performs an initial overview to ensure safety and gather critical information before patient contact. NREMT guidelines emphasize specific elements that must be identified early.
Key components of scene size-up include:
1. Mechanism of Injury (MOI) (A):
Helps predict potential injuries based on how the incident occurred
Essential for determining severity and treatment priorities
2. Entrapment (B):
Determines whether patients are physically trapped
Helps anticipate need for extrication resources and delays in care
3. Number of Patients (D):
Critical for determining if additional resources are needed
Helps identify potential mass-casualty incidents (MCI)
NREMT-aligned references state:
"Scene size-up includes determining the mechanism of injury."
"Identify the number of patients and need for additional resources."
"Determine if extrication or special rescue is required."
Why the other options are incorrect:
C). Severity of the patientsThis is determined during the primary assessment, not initial scene size-up E). Which patients have diedNot part of initial size-up priorities F). Site for loading injured patientsThis is part of incident management/transport decisions, not initial size-up Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
"Determine the mechanism of injury or nature of illness."
"Determine the number of patients."
"Assess the need for additional resources and extrication."
Clinical Priority Summary:
Scene size-up focuses on environmental awareness and resource needs, specifically MOI, patient count, and entrapment, making A, B, and D correct.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - EMS Operations (Scene Size-Up)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP)
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 94
When treating a patient suspected of having tuberculosis, you should
- A. Place a HEPA respirator on the patient
- B. Place a surgical mask on the patient
- C. Notify the Centers for Disease Control
- D. Wear a surgical mask before treating the patient
Answer: B
Explanation:
For suspected or confirmed tuberculosis (TB), the EMT should place a surgical mask on the patient, not a HEPA respirator. Surgical masks are used to contain droplets from the patient and reduce airborne transmission.
The EMT should wear a N95 or HEPA respirator to protect against inhaling airborne particles. Notification to the CDC is not the EMT's responsibility - that falls to public health officials.
References:
CDC Guidelines for TB Exposure in Prehospital Settings
NREMT Infectious Disease Control Protocols
National EMS Education Standards - Airborne Pathogens and PPE Use
NEW QUESTION # 95
A patient who is 30 weeks pregnant is in cardiac arrest after being hit by a car. How should the EMT proceed?
Select the two answer options that are correct.
- A. Perform compressions at a depth of at least two inches.
- B. Avoid using the AED due to fetal detriment.
- C. Provide left uterine displacement.
- D. Perform compressions on the upper half of the sternum.
- E. Request a medical helicopter to transport the patient.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Provide left uterine displacement and E. Perform compressions at a depth of at least two inches.
Key Concept: Cardiac Arrest in Late Pregnancy
At #20 weeks gestation (30 weeks in this case):
* The enlarged uterus compresses the inferior vena cava (IVC) when the patient is supine
* This reduces venous return and cardiac output, worsening resuscitation effectiveness Why A is correct (Left uterine displacement):
* The uterus should be manually displaced to the left side
* This relieves pressure on the IVC and improves circulation during CPR NREMT/AHA-aligned guidance states:
* "Manual left uterine displacement should be performed in pregnant patients during resuscitation." Why E is correct (Compression depth):
* CPR in pregnant patients follows standard adult CPR guidelines
* Compression depth should be at least 2 inches (5 cm)
* "Perform high-quality chest compressions at a depth of at least 2 inches." Why the other options are incorrect:
* B. Avoid using AED# Incorrect - AED is safe and indicated in pregnancy
* "Defibrillation should not be withheld in pregnant patients."
* C. Request a helicopter# Not a priority during active cardiac arrest - resuscitation comes first
* D. Upper half of sternum# Incorrect - compressions are performed on the center of the chest (lower half of sternum) Exact Extracts (NREMT/AHA-aligned references):
* "Perform manual uterine displacement in late pregnancy during CPR."
* "Use standard CPR compression depth and rate."
* "Defibrillation is safe in pregnancy and should not be delayed."
Clinical Priority Summary:
In a pregnant cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should perform standard high-quality CPR while relieving uterine pressure on major vessels, making A and E the correct answers.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Cardiology & Resuscitation
American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines for CPR and ECC
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP)
NEW QUESTION # 96
A patient is having a stroke. Which of the following details are most important to report to the receiving hospital? Select the two answer options that are correct.
- A. Time of first signs or symptoms
- B. Weight of the patient
- C. Patient's denial of a headache
- D. Patient's family physician
- E. History of autoimmune disorder
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
NREMT stroke management focuses on rapid identification and time-sensitive intervention, particularly for patients who may be eligible for thrombolytic therapy or endovascular treatment.
Option D (Time of first signs or symptoms) is critical. This determines the patient's eligibility for treatments such as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be administered within a defined time window.
Option C (Patient's denial of a headache) is also important because sudden, severe headache suggests hemorrhagic stroke, whereas its absence may support ischemic stroke. This information helps guide diagnostic urgency and treatment planning.
Option A is not immediately relevant prehospital.
Option B is administrative, not emergent.
Option E does not impact acute stroke management.
NREMT stresses the importance of early notification, accurate time history, and focused neurological reporting to improve stroke outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 97
A 3-year-old patient has drooling and stridor. The vital signs are BP 82/40, P 132, R 34, SpO# 94%, and T
102.4°F (39.1°C). Which of the following interventions should the EMT perform?
- A. Suction the patient ' s posterior pharynx.
- B. Visualize the airway for any obstruction.
- C. Apply humidified oxygen.
- D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Apply humidified oxygen.
This patient presentation is highly suggestive of epiglottitis, a life-threatening upper airway infection commonly seen in pediatric patients.
Key findings:
* Drooling # inability to swallow secretions
* Stridor # upper airway obstruction
* Fever (102.4°F) # infection
* Anxiety and tachycardia # respiratory distress
Why D is correct:
* The priority is to maintain airway patency without agitating the child.
* Humidified oxygen helps improve oxygenation while minimizing airway irritation.
* It is the safest initial intervention in suspected epiglottitis.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Visualize the airway # Can trigger complete airway obstruction due to swelling
* B. Suction posterior pharynx # May stimulate gag reflex and worsen obstruction
* C. Insert oropharyngeal airway # Contraindicated in conscious or semi-conscious patients and may cause airway collapse Exact Extracts:
* "Do not attempt to visualize the airway in suspected epiglottitis."
* "Avoid any procedure that may agitate the child and cause airway obstruction."
* "Provide humidified oxygen and transport promptly."
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Pediatric Airway) National EMS Education Standards - Pediatric Respiratory Emergencies NREMT Candidate Handbook - Airway Management
NEW QUESTION # 98
A patient with emphysema is displaying pursed lip breathing. Which of the following pathological responses is responsible for this type of breathing?
- A. Inadequate diaphragmatic function
- B. Loss of lung elasticity
- C. Increased mucous production
- D. Decreased hemoglobin
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pursed-lip breathing is a classic compensatory mechanism seen in patients with emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). According to NREMT education, emphysema is characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls, which leads to loss of lung elasticity. This loss prevents the small airways from remaining open during exhalation.
Option A is correct because pursed-lip breathing creates positive pressure in the airways during exhalation.
This pressure helps keep collapsed airways open longer, allowing trapped air to escape and improving ventilation. It also reduces the work of breathing and helps alleviate dyspnea.
Option B is incorrect because decreased hemoglobin affects oxygen-carrying capacity, not airway mechanics or breathing patterns.
Option C is more commonly associated with chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.
Option D is incorrect because diaphragmatic dysfunction is not the primary cause of pursed-lip breathing.
NREMT emphasizes recognizing compensatory breathing patterns in chronic lung disease to guide supportive care, including oxygen administration and positioning.
NEW QUESTION # 99
The most common finding in a patient who is experiencing a sickle cell crisis is
- A. Pain
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hypoxia
- D. Cardiac arrhythmia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sickle cell crisis (vaso-occlusive crisis) occurs when abnormally shaped red blood cells obstruct blood flow, leading to:
* Severe localized or generalized pain (most common symptom)
* Often in the back, chest, abdomen, or long bones
Hypoxia may be a contributing factor, but pain is the most reported reason for EMS activation. Cardiac arrhythmias and hypertension are not primary symptoms of sickle cell crisis.
References:
NREMT Medical Guidelines - Hematologic Disorders
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation (11th ed.) - Chapter on Hematologic Emergencies National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute - Sickle Cell Disease Management
NEW QUESTION # 100
When using the SALT method for triage, which of the following interventions should the EMT perform during the individual assessment step?
- A. Assessing respirations, administering two rescue breaths, and assessing patient mentation
- B. Bleeding control, opening the airway, and administering two rescue breaths for pediatric patients
- C. Completing first responder scorecards to track patients
- D. Insertion of airway adjuncts, bleeding control, and moving patients to the triage area
Answer: A
Explanation:
SALT (Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, Treatment/Transport) is a mass casualty triage method recommended by the CDC and the National Association of EMS Physicians (NAEMSP). During the " Assess
" step, responders:
* Check respirations
* Provide lifesaving interventions such as rescue breaths if the patient is not breathing but has a pulse
* Evaluate mentation (e.g., ability to follow commands)
Airway adjuncts and full transport do not happen at this stage. Scorecards and pediatric-specific modifications are addressed later in the protocol.
References:
NREMT EMS Operations - Mass Casualty and Triage Guidelines
CDC SALT Mass Casualty Triage Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Disaster Response
NEW QUESTION # 101
A 31-year-old patient has an open femur fracture and an unstable pelvis after falling 15 feet. They are conscious and responsive to verbal stimuli. The vital signs are BP 86/42, P 136, R 24, and SpO# 92% on room air. The patient has which of the following types of shock? Select the two correct options.
- A. Distributive
- B. Hypovolemic
- C. Obstructive
- D. Compensated
- E. Decompensated
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This is a classic presentation ofhypovolemic shockdue to traumaticblood loss(open femur fracture, pelvic instability). Indicators include:
* Low BP (86/42)= hypotension
* High pulse (P 136)= compensation
* Mental status decline (responsive only to voice)= indicatesdecompensatedshock Obstructive and distributive shock are not applicable. Compensated shock would shownormal BPandalert mental status.
References:
NREMT Shock Management and Trauma Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Hemorrhagic and Non-Hemorrhagic Shock AAOS EMT Textbook - Chapter: Types of Shock
NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following pathophysiological responses causes a patient with neurogenic shock to become hypotensive?
- A. Inhibited release of acetylcholine from the brain
- B. Overwhelming release of cytokines from the inflammatory system
- C. Severe impairment of myocardial oxygen supply
- D. Loss of sympathetic tone above the level of the adrenal glands
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Neurogenic shock results from damage to the spinal cord, most commonly at or above the thoracic level.
NREMT education emphasizes that this injury disrupts the sympathetic nervous system, which normally maintains vascular tone.
Option C is correct because loss of sympathetic tone leads to widespread vasodilation, causing hypotension and often bradycardia, distinguishing neurogenic shock from other shock types.
Option A is incorrect because acetylcholine inhibition is not the mechanism.
Option B describes cardiogenic shock.
Option D describes septic (distributive) shock.
NREMT highlights that recognizing neurogenic shock is critical, as treatment priorities differ from hypovolemic shock.
NEW QUESTION # 103
A 67-year-old patient reports crushing chest pressure. The vital signs are BP 156/98, P 64, R 14, and SpO2 94%. What treatments should the EMT provide first? Select the two correct options.
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Assist with nitroglycerin
- C. Give aspirin
- D. Apply CPAP
- E. Lay the patient supine
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The patient's symptoms are consistent withacute coronary syndrome (ACS). Thefirst-line treatmentsare:
* Aspirin(160-325 mg): inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing clot progression.
* Oxygen: administered when SpO# <94% or signs of hypoxia/distress are present.
CPAPis for pulmonary edema or respiratory failure.Nitroglycerinrequires BP >90 systolic and medical direction approval. Laying the patient supine may increase myocardial workload and is inappropriate unless hypotension occurs.
References:
NREMT Cardiology and Resuscitation Guidelines
AHA ACLS Provider Manual (2020) - Acute Coronary Syndrome Treatment
National EMS Education Standards - Cardiovascular Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 104
An 83-year-old patient is unresponsive and lying on the floor. The patient has a large bruise and laceration on the forehead. The patient's vital signs are BP 90/60, P 126, and R 0. Which of the following conditions should the EMT most suspect?
- A. Brain herniation
- B. Spine injury
- C. Commotio cordis
- D. Open pneumothorax
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Givenfall with head traumaandabsent respirations, the most concerning cause isspinal injury, particularly acervical spine fracture. Ahigh cervical injury (C1-C4)canparalyze the diaphragm, leading toapnea despite a beating heart.
Brain herniation can also depress respirations but often presents withunequal pupils,posturing, andCushing' s triad(not described here).Commotio cordisis sudden cardiac arrest from blunt chest trauma (not head).
Open pneumothoraxaffects chest mechanics, not directly linked here.
References:
NREMT Trauma Skills - Spinal Assessment
Brady Emergency Care (13th ed.), Chapter: Spine Injuries
National EMS Education Standards - CNS Trauma and Spinal Immobilization
NEW QUESTION # 105
A patient in cardiac arrest is currently being resuscitated. How should the EMT communicate with family members at the scene?
- A. Offer to call the funeral home for them during resuscitation.
- B. Do not allow them to disrupt resuscitation by expressing emotion.
- C. Order the family to leave the residence.
- D. Allow them to watch the resuscitation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In EMS, family members should be treated with compassion, honesty, and respect during a resuscitation.
Current American Heart Association guidance notes that family presence during CPR can improve psychological outcomes and reduce complicated grief , as long as it does not interfere with resuscitation efforts . It also emphasizes communicating with the family, explaining what is happening, and providing support during the event. ( cpr.heart.org ) So the best answer is A : allow them to watch the resuscitation, provided they are not disrupting care or creating a safety problem. In NREMT-style operations questions, that reflects appropriate professional communication and family-centered care. ( NAEMSP )
NEW QUESTION # 106
A mountain climber tells you that he came down from a hike because he was coughing up blood. You should suspect
- A. Neoplasm
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)in a physically active person, such as a mountain climber, strongly suggests apulmonary embolism (PE), particularly due to:
* Dehydration
* Prolonged exertion or immobility
* High altitude increasing clot risk
Symptoms may include:
* Shortness of breath
* Chest pain
* Tachypnea
* Hemoptysis
Pulmonary edemagenerally causes pink frothy sputum and is more associated with heart failure.Neoplasm (lung cancer)is possible but much less acute in onset.Spontaneous pneumothoraxcauses dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain but not typically hemoptysis.
References:
NREMT Medical Assessment - Pulmonary and Hematologic Emergencies
AAOS EMT Textbook - Chapter: Respiratory Emergencies
CDC Guidelines - High-Risk Conditions for Pulmonary Embolism
NEW QUESTION # 107
In order for a plaintiff to recover damages in a lawsuit against an EMT, there must be a duty to perform, breach of duty, damage, and
- A. Abandonment
- B. Contributory neglect
- C. Malfeasance
- D. Proximate causation
Answer: D
Explanation:
To establish negligence, four legal elements must be proven:
* Duty to act - a legal obligation to provide care.
* Breach of duty - failing to meet the standard of care.
* Damages - harm occurred.
* Proximate causation - the breach directly caused the damage.
" Proximate causation " means the EMT's action or inaction is closely linked to the harm suffered by the patient.
References:
NREMT Candidate Handbook - Legal and Ethical Guidelines
"Emergency Care" (13th ed., Limmer & O'Keefe) - Chapter: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues National EMS Education Standards - Professionalism and Ethics
NEW QUESTION # 108
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