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MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) Sample Questions:

1. A 57-year-old man was admitted to hospital with joint pains. He was found to have gout. He had been found to have type 2 diabetes mellitus at the age of 47 years and developed nephropathy 7 years later. He was taking metformin 1 g twice daily, ramipril 5 mg twice daily and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The admitting team advised him to take ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily as needed.
On examination, his pulse was 87 beats per minute and his blood pressure was 146/85 mmHg. He had an inflamed right hallux.
Investigations:
serum sodium131 mmol/L (137-144)
serum potassium5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
serum creatinine156 umol/L (60-110)
estimated glomerular filtration rate (MDRD)42 mL/min/1.73 m2 (>60)
haemoglobin A1c72 mmol/mol (20-42)
random plasma glucose23.0 mmol/L
What is the most appropriate step in management?

A) stop ibuprofen and withhold metformin
B) stop gliclazide and ibuprofen
C) stop gliclazide and withhold metformin
D) stop ibuprofen alone
E) withhold metformin alone

2. A 72-year-old woman was referred for bone density assessment after sustaining a fracture of her right ankle after a minor fall. She had previously fractured her right wrist after tripping in the street. Her past medical history included occasional angina relieved by glyceryl trinitrate spray and a previous deep venous thrombosis. Her medication comprised aspirin, simvastatin, alendronic acid, and calcium and vitamin D, which she had been taking regularly for 2 years.
Investigations:
DXA scan of spine (L2-L4)T score -2.4
DXA scan of total hipT score -2.8
What is the most appropriate treatment?

A) switch alendronic acid to teriparatide
B) switch alendronic acid to strontium ranelate
C) continue alendronic acid
D) switch alendronic acid to pamidronate
E) switch alendronic acid to raloxifene

3. A 17-year-old Caucasian girl presented with primary amenorrhea.
On examination, her body mass index was 21 kg/m2 (18-25). Her body habitus was normal and she had appropriate breast development. There was no hirsutism or acne.
Investigations:
serum oestradiol<180 pmol/L (200-400) serum testosterone31.7 nmol/L (0.5-3.0) serum follicle-stimulating hormone4.0 U/L (2.5-10.0) serum luteinising hormone6.0 U/L (2.5-10.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) androgen-secreting ovarian tumour
B) adrenocortical carcinoma
C) polycystic ovary syndrome
D) ovarian hyperthecosis
E) complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

4. A 45-year-old woman attended for annual follow-up for long-standing hypoparathyroidism (a complication of thyroid surgery 5 years previously). She was asymptomatic. She was taking alfacalcidol 1 microgram daily.
Examination was unremarkable.
Investigations:
serum creatinine105 umol/L (60-110)
serum corrected calcium2.45 mmol/L (2.20-2.60)
24-h urinary calcium9.8 mmol (2.5-7.5)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) add bendroflumethiazide
B) decrease alfacalcidol dosage
C) recommend low-calcium diet
D) change alfacalcidol to calcitriol
E) change alfacalcidol to teriparatide

5. A 50-year-old woman with acromegaly presented with persistent sweating and headaches
despite having undergone trans-sphenoidal surgery and pituitary radiotherapy 2 years
previously. She had been intolerant of treatment with octreotide.
Investigations:
serum growth hormone11.1 ?g/L (<0.4)
serum insulin-like growth factor 186.2 nmol/L (5.6-23.3)
Following imaging, it was judged that there was no role for repeat surgery. She was treated
with pegvisomant 10 mg. Six months into treatment, her symptoms had improved.
Investigations (6 months later):
serum growth hormone20.3 ?g/L (<0.4)
serum insulin-like growth factor 115.2 nmol/L (5.6-23.3)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) add cabergoline
B) continue present dosage of pegvisomant
C) stop pegvisomant
D) arrange another full course of pituitary radiotherapy
E) increase dosage of pegvisomant

Solutions: